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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 04:09

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why do people turn a blind eye to bad behaviour if someone is very good looking? Whereas if someone is ugly, they get harshly judged for everything?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.